My bank paid a cross-payees account cheque for a handsome amount which I had given to a person as a receipt, to be substituted by a fresh cheque from me after due performance of contract by him and which was 'claused' or marked on its forefront with the words reading "permission must be taken prior payment/submission."
I complained to the bank and claimed the amount back from it, but the bank responded by stating that the writing was superfluous and had not been counter signed by me.
From this it can be inferred that if the said note was not signed by me, then in that case the cheque was irregular and shouldn't have been paid by the bank. It also means that had I countersigned the note, the bank would have paid the cheque. I think in both cases, the bank admittedly did wrong by paying an irregular or invalid cheque. Moreover, the cheque took more than a week to be processed, which is normally too long a float time in these days of fast internet communication.
Please let me have your valued comments on this so that I can lodge a formal claim plus damages on the defaulting negligent bank.