I've purchased perfume with pheromones before and I do think that it works. What I'm curious about is the difference between male and female pheromones. I have guy friends who actually use perfume with pheromones made for women because they believe it works better. I've heard the same thing about women using perfumes with male pheromones. How could this be?
The other thing I'm wondering is special cases like family members or gay/lesbian individuals. I remember hearing from a doctor on TV that we don't release hormones if we're around family members of the opposite sex. So a daughter doesn't release pheromones around her dad and vice versa. So wouldn't it be wrong to say that pheromones are activated automatically around the opposite sex? Clearly there is something conscious going on here, it can't be entirely subconscious.
The same goes for gay and lesbian individuals. Since they are not attracted to the opposite sex, but rather the same sex, wouldn't they only release pheromones around the same sex instead?
Can anyone answer any of these questions? Are there any good studies done on the topics I mentioned? I would love to learn more about this.